I'm considering the following problem:
Let U and V be two subspaces of $\mathbb{R}^{N}$ . True or False:
If U is orthogonal to V then U$^{\perp}$ is orthogonal to V$^{\perp}$?.
My intuition tells me that the statement is true, although I'm not sure. I know that if $\vec{v} \in V \space then \space \vec{v} \in U^{\perp}$ because the orthogonal complement $U^{\perp}$ is the set of all vectors that are orthogonal to U, and similarly if $\vec{u} \in U \space then \space \vec{u} \in V^{\perp}$.
The reason I am unsure is because there may be some vector $\vec{w} \in U^{\perp} \space and \notin V$ such that $\vec{w} \cdot \vec{v}_{1} \neq 0$ for some $\vec{v}_{1} \in V^{\perp}$, although I'm unsure how to approach proving/disproving this. Can anyone help me find a perspective from which to approach this problem?