This is statement is used in one of the proofs in my book and I am struggling to figure out how to deduce it or proof it:
$, \overline{i^{n - k}} = i^{n - k}(-1)^{n - k})$
What is the intuition behind the statement? Why is the $(-1)$ raised to a power?
Wouldn't the conjugate of $i$ be $-i$ and thus the conjugate of $i^n$ be $-i^n$?