$f(1) = 1\\ f(2) = 2\\ f(3) = 6\\ f(4) = 20\\ f(5) = 70\\ f(6) = 252\\ f(7) = 924\\ f(8) = 3432\\ f(9) = 12870$
Then what is $f(n)$ (where $n > 0$)?
I though about many many possibilities but still cannot figure out the expression.
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Sign up to join this community$f(1) = 1\\ f(2) = 2\\ f(3) = 6\\ f(4) = 20\\ f(5) = 70\\ f(6) = 252\\ f(7) = 924\\ f(8) = 3432\\ f(9) = 12870$
Then what is $f(n)$ (where $n > 0$)?
I though about many many possibilities but still cannot figure out the expression.
You could approach this kind of question in this way. You'd like to find what is the relation between $f_n$ and $f_{n+1}$ (you believe that there is some) so that's why most of the time it's a good idea to analyze expressions like $\frac{f_{n+1}}{f_n}$ or $f_{n+1}-f_n$. Let's look at $\frac{f_{n+1}}{f_n}$. You may notice that $\frac{f_{n+1}}{f_{n}}\sim 4$ as the sequence grows, more precisely: $$ \begin{array}{ccl} \frac{f_2}{f_1}& = & 2 \\ \frac{f_3}{f_2} & = & 3 \\ \frac{f_4}{f_3} & = &3.(3) \\ \frac{f_5}{f_4} & = & 3.5 \\ \frac{f_6}{f_5} & = & 3.6 \\ \frac{f_7}{f_6} & = & 3.(6)\\ \frac{f_8}{f_7} & = & 3.(714285) \\ \frac{f_9}{f_8} & = & 3.75 \\ \end{array} $$
So you might expect that $\frac{f_{n+1}}{f_{n}} = 4 - g_n$ where $g_n \to 0$ as $n\to +\infty$. Upon more precise calculation we get: $$ \begin{array}{ccl} \frac{f_2}{f_1}& = & 4-\frac{2}{1} \\ \frac{f_3}{f_2} & = & 4-\frac{2}{2} \\ \frac{f_4}{f_3} & = &4-\frac{2}{3} \\ \frac{f_5}{f_4} & = &4-\frac{2}{4} \\ \frac{f_6}{f_5} & = &4-\frac{2}{5} \\ \frac{f_7}{f_6} & = & 4-\frac{2}{6}\\ \frac{f_8}{f_7} & = & 4-\frac{2}{7} \\ \frac{f_9}{f_8} & = & 4-\frac{2}{8} \\ \end{array} $$ So we could see that $\frac{f_{n+1}}{f_n} = 4-\frac{2}{n} = \frac{2(2n-1)}{n}$. From here $$\frac{f_{n+1}}{1} =\frac{f_{n+1}}{ f_n } \times \frac{f_{n}}{f_{n-1}} \times \dots \times \frac{f_2}{f_1} = \frac{2(2n-1)}{n}\times \frac{2(2n-3)}{n-1} \dots = \frac{2^n(2n-1)!!}{n!}$$
which is $\binom{2n}{n}$ as already mentioned
The Central Binomial Coefficients $$ \binom{2n-2}{n-1} $$ seem to fit.
Edit: As Nikolay Gromov comments, this is the same sequence as given in his answer, though it is not immediately apparent. This is because $$ (2n-3)!!=\frac{(2n-2)!}{2^{n-1}(n-1)!} $$ so that $$ \frac{2^{n-1}(2n-3)!!}{(n-1)!}=\frac{(2n-2)!}{(n-1)!(n-1)!}=\binom{2n-2}{n-1} $$
What about this?
$$\frac{2^{n-1} (2 n-3)\text{!!}}{(n-1)!}$$
which gives
$$ \begin{array}{ccl} f(1) & = & 1 \\ f(2) & = & 2 \\ f(3) & = & 6 \\ f(4) & = & 20 \\ f(5) & = & 70 \\ f(6) & = & 252 \\ f(7) & = & 924 \\ f(8) & = & 3432 \\ f(9) & = & 12870 \\ f(10) & = & 48620 \\ f(11) & = & 184756 \\ f(12) & = & 705432 \\ f(13) & = & 2704156 \\ f(14) & = & 10400600 \\ f(15) & = & 40116600 \\ f(16) & = & 155117520 \\ f(17) & = & 601080390 \\ f(18) & = & 2333606220 \\ f(19) & = & 9075135300 \\ f(20) & = & 35345263800 \\ \end{array} $$