Proposition 19(v) of Section 1.5 page 23 in the book Real Analysis by Royden and Fitzpatrick, 4th edition (see link), says:
If $a_n \le b_n$ for all $n$, then $\lim\sup a_n \le \lim \inf b_n$.
However one can find a counter-example for a sequence $a_n = b_n$ which has different limsup and liminf. Is it a mistake, or am I missing something obvious?