In class today, we learned about the familiar $L^p$ martingale convergence theorem: For $p >1,$ if $X_n$ is a martingale with $\sup \mathbb{E}|X_n|^p <\infty$, then $X_n \rightarrow X$ a.s. and in $L^p$.
Comparing this result with many other convergence theorems, we find that is requires X to be a martingale instead of just a submartingale. I assume this must have some reason, i.e. this result does not hold for submartingales.
Intuitively, I would assume that this is caused by something related to a restriction to the nonnegativity of the submartingale, i.e. the result will not hold when $X_n$ is a negative submartingale. Is this true? Or does the theorem also hold for submartingales?
If it does not hold, could you give me a counterexample?