Could someone shed some light on this? I perfectly understand Euclid's proof on the infinity of primes.
Let's suppose there is a largest prime, p, and then let's make a number, n, so that n = (2 x 3 x 5 x ... x p) + 1. ( The parentheses are not mandatory but they help me to visualize it better.) The new number n is a number larger than the largest prime and therefore it has to be a composite number. But if you divide n with any of the primes from 2 to p (that's all the primes), you always get a remainder of 1, so n can't be a composite number. So either there is a prime bigger than p that divides n, or n itself is a new prime number.
But I just don't understand the way my math book proves it. It begins exactly the same:
...The new number n is a number larger than the largest prime and therefore it has to be a composite number. Therefore it can be divided to it's prime factors. But because n is a sum with one of the addends being indivisible by any prime (the number 1), the number n must also be indivisible by any prime. Therefore n is a composite number that is divisible with some larger prime than p.
The part I don't really get is "But because n is a sum with one of the addends being indivisible by any prime, the number n must also be indivisible by any prime."