It is not as simple as some people are arguing! Consider a sequence $s_n=(2+1/n)!![n-{\rm times}]!!$ one can also say the limit of this sequence is $2!!![{\rm infinitely\; many}]$, however the result, I am sure, is divergent and is not $2$. Basically one can get any result by changing the definition.
Please give an argument before downvoting.
(in case you don't know factorial is perfectly defined for non-integer values by $x!=\Gamma(1+x)$
Let me specify the most general definition: let $t_n$ is a convergent to $2$ sequence, then $$2!!!\dots\equiv \lim_{n\to\infty} t_n ![n-{\rm times}]$$
Conjecture (may be wrong) would be then that $2!!!\dots \ge 2$