Let $G$ be a Lie group acting on itself as $\phi(h)(g)= L_h(g)$ as a left translation. Then we can consider the cotangent lift of this action, namely $\Phi: G \times T^*G \rightarrow T^*G$ as $\Phi(h)(g,p) = (hg,(dL_{h^{-1}}(hg))^*p).$
It can now be shown that such a map induces a canonical Hamilton function with moment map on the cotangent bundle
$H_{\xi}(g,p) = J(q,p)(\xi):=(dR_g)^*(e)(p)(\xi)$ for some $\xi \in \mathfrak{g}.$
This is now my motivation for the question:
If we consider $J^{-1}(x)$ for $x \in \mathfrak{g}^*$ then this set is given by $$J^{-1}(x) = \{ (g , (dR_{g^{-1}})^*(g)(x));g \in G \}.$$
My question is: Why is it a manifold? (I admit that it looks very much like an application of the regular value theorem, but I don't see why it applies)
If there is anything unclear about my question, please let me know.