I know that the answer is always $1$, but they are looking for some way to get to that answer and I don't know what it is. I am not good at english math terms, but maybe it has to do with differential functions or something like that.
Sometimes roots can trip people up. Try this:
Now, you should know that $1$ times itself is always $1$. So if I multiply $1$ by itself $3$ times, or in other words raise $1$ to the power of $3$, I'll still have $1$, right? Plug in $1$ for $x$ to check this:
Yep, it works. Therefore:
Feel free to ask questions about my steps. Hope this helped!