I want to prove this two things:
1) $(\mathbb{R},d_B)$ is not totally bounded.
where $d_B=\frac{|x-y|}{1+|x-y|}$ and $d_E$ is the Euclidean metric.
2) $B_M(0)$ is totally bounded in $\mathbb{R}^n$.
For the first one, we know that every norm in $\mathbb{R}^d$ are equivalent so $(\mathbb{R},d_B)$ is homeomorphic to $(\mathbb{R},d_E)$ so If we assume that $ (\mathbb{R},d_B)$ is totally bounded, then so is $(\mathbb{R},d_E)$ but we know that this is not even bounded, so the result follows.
Well I think that the norm that induce that metric is $$\frac{||x||}{1+||x||}$$ where $||x||=\sqrt{|x^{2}|}$
Am I right?, and if it wrong can you help me to fix it please?
For two, I don't how to prove it, my definition of totally bounded is the following:
For every $\varepsilon>0$ there exists a finite set of points $x_1,\dots,x_n\in A$ such that $A=\cup_{i=1}^n B_{\varepsilon}(x_i)$, where $B_{\varepsilon}(x_i)$ denotes the open $\varepsilon$-ball with center $x_i$.
So I have to pick an arbitrary $\varepsilon$ and give general points to bound the ball of radius $M$.
Can someone help me with that verification and the part two please?
Thanks a lot in advance.