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Wolfram Alpha tells me that $\lim_{n\to\infty} \tan(n) = -\infty$ to $\infty$. Does it mean that the limit doesn't exist? Furthermore can I use l'Hopital for the following limit: $\lim_{n\to \infty}(a_n) = 0$ where $a_n = \tan(n) (\frac{1}{e})^{n}$ ?

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    $\begingroup$ The limit of $\tan n$ does not exist. $\endgroup$ – André Nicolas Aug 19 '15 at 16:26
  • $\begingroup$ The limit is $0$, as you can see in your previous question's answer, and using l'Hopital does not make any sense here. $\endgroup$ – Crostul Aug 19 '15 at 16:29
  • $\begingroup$ @Crostul the question is whether this is possible. $\endgroup$ – Symeof Aug 19 '15 at 16:35
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    $\begingroup$ @Symeof The answer is no. $\endgroup$ – Crostul Aug 19 '15 at 16:41
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Yes. The limit doesn't exist. This is what wolfram alpha's notation means. So this isn't possible to use l'Hopital.

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