$$f(x,y) = \left\{\begin{array}{cc} \frac{xy}{x^2+y^2} & (x,y)\neq(0,0) \\ f(x,y) = 0 & (x,y)=(0,0) \end{array}\right.$$
In order to verify if this function is differentiable, I tried to prove it by the theorem that says that if $\frac{∂f}{∂x}$ and $\frac{∂f}{∂y}$ exist and are continuous at the point $(x_0,y_0)$, then the function is differentiable at this point. So I did:
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(0,0) = \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(0+h,0)-f(0,0)}{h} = 0$$ $$\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(0,0) = \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(0,0+h)-f(0,0)}{h} = 0$$
so we have that the partial derivatives at point $(0,0)$ is $0$. Now, if we take the derivative at $(x,y)\neq (0,0)$ and then take the limit of it as $(x,y)\to(0,0)$, we can see if the derivatives are continuous or not. So here it is:
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(x,y) = \frac{y(y^2-x^2)}{(x^2+y^2)}$$
but
$$\lim_{(x,y)\to(0,0)} \frac{y(y^2-x^2)}{(x^2+y^2)} $$ does not exist (by wolfram alpha... but can anybody tell me an easy way to prove this limit does not exist? easier than taking the limit in different directions?), therefore the derivative is not continuous at $(0,0)$, so we can't say $f$ is differentiable at $(0,0)$, but for $(x,y)\neq (0,0)$ the function is continuous, as it is a quotient of continuous functions. So $f$ is at least differentiable at $(x,y)\neq (0,0)$.
Now, to verify differentiability at $(0,0)$ I think we must use the limit definition of differentiablity: A function is differentiable at $(0,0)$ iff: $$\lim_{(h,k)\to (0,0)} \frac{f(0+h,0+k)-f(0,0)-\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(0,0)-\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(0,0)}{\|(h,k)\|} = 0$$
Let's calculate this limit:
$$\lim_{(h,k)\to (0,0)} \frac{f(0+h,0+k)-f(0,0)-\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(0,0)-\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(0,0)}{\|(h,k)\|} = \\ \lim_{(h,k)\to (0,0)} \frac{\frac{hk}{h^2+k^2}}{\sqrt{h^2+k^2}} = \\ \lim_{(h,k)\to (0,0)} \frac{hk}{(h^2+k^2)\sqrt{h^2+k^2}}$$
which I think, it's a limit that does not exist, therefore the function isn't differentiable at $(0,0)$