When a function f increases without bound we say $f(x)=\infty$. How does this idea relate to, if at all with the infinite sets we study in set theory?
To give a better understanding of why I'm bringing this up let me present and example,
Take $$\lim_{x\to2}f(x)$$ where $$f(x) = \frac{3}{(x-2)}$$ the graph of which is
Now obviously $\lim_{x\to2}f(x)$ does not exist but could we in some context say that $\lim_{x\to2}f(x)$ corresponds to(or is even equal or equivalent to) a set $\mathscr M$ such the |$\mathscr M$| = |$\mathscr{R}$|. In other words, if they are related then how is that and if not, why not? Thanks in advance.