First, some preliminaries and context.
Let $f \colon [0,1]\to[0,1]^2$ be a space-filling curve. If we put on $[0,1]$ and $[0,1]^2$ the standard Euclidean metrics induced by $\mathbb{R}$ and $\mathbb{R}^2$ respectively, it is somewhat well known that $f$ can't be Lipschitz, because Lipschitz maps don't increase Hausdorff dimension, and we have $\dim_H([0,1])=1$ and $\dim_H([0,1]^2)=2$, where $\dim_H$ denotes the Hausdorff dimension.
To hope for such a map to be Lipschitz we can put on $[0,1]$ the metric given by $|\cdot|^{\frac12}$, where $|\cdot|$ denotes the standard metric. In this case, since Hausdorff dimension relies on the metric, we have $\widetilde{\dim}_H([0,1])=\dim_H([0,1]^2)=2$, where $\widetilde{\dim}_H$ denotes the Hausdorff dimension with respect to the metric $|\cdot|^{\frac12}$ on $[0,1]$. Hence, it is a priori possible to find a Lipschitz space-filling curve $f$. The fact that $\widetilde{\dim}_H([0,1])=2$ is an easy calculation using the fact that $\dim_H([0,1])=1$.
I should be able to prove, using some nice properties of dyadic numbers that the Hilbert curve is indeed Lipschitz in this case (with $L=1$). I couldn't extend such proof to other curves which do not have any nice dyadic structure, for instance the Peano curve. I could attempt to write down the proof, but for the time being this is not helpful to the purpose of my question so I will postpone until someone requires it.
I have two questions:
- Does anybody have a proof of the fact that a particular space-filling curve is Lipschitz in the sense described above? I would be happy to see any proof, elementary or not.
- Is it true that any space-filling curve is Lipschitz? If yes, why? If not, is there a counterexample?
I'm interested in this because such a map is a typical example of a Lipschitz map which does not have any biLipschitz piece.
Any comment or partial answer is very welcome.