First,
$$
\mathsf{P}\left(Y_n-X_n>\frac{1}{2}\right)=\mathsf{P}\left(Y_{n-1}>\frac{1}{2\rho}\right)
$$
and $Y_n=(1-\rho L)^{-1}X_{n}=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\rho^k X_{n-k}$, where $L$ is the lag operator. Then, using the characteristic function of a Laplace r.v.,
$$
\varphi_{\sum_{k=0}^{N}\rho^k X_{n-k}}(t)=\prod_{k=0}^{N}\varphi_{X_{n-k}}\left(\rho^k t\right)=\exp\left\{-\sum_{k=0}^{N}\ln\left(1+\rho^{2k}\frac{t^2}{\lambda^2}\right)\right\},
$$
which does not converge to the characteristic function of a normal r.v. In fact, for $|t|<\lambda$ (using the Taylor series for $\ln$),
$$
\varphi_{Y_n}(t)=\exp\left\{-\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{k}\frac{(t/\lambda)^{2k}}{(1-\rho^{2k})} \right\},
$$
which is approximately the c.f. of a normal r.v. for small values of $t$. So, in general, it's hard to find the stationary distribution of $Y$-s given Laplace innovations. The pdf of $Y_n$ ($h_Y$) can be found as the solution of
$$h_Y(x)=\int f_X(x-\rho u)h_Y(u)du$$
via the following recursion
$$h_{Y,n}(x)=\int f_X(x-\rho u)h_{Y,n-1}(u)du$$
starting with some arbitrary pdf $h_{Y,0}$. It can be shown that $h_{Y,n}\rightarrow h$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$.
However, it seems that there is a typo in the question. For example, in part (a) the authors ask to compute the autocorrelation $R_X(k,j)$ which does not make sense because $X$-s are i.i.d. So, probably their intention was to specify the stationary distribution of $Y$-s. Then you can find the corresponding distribution of innovations by noticing that
$$\varphi_{Y_n}(t)=\varphi_{Y_{n-1}}(\rho t)\varphi_{X_n}(t)$$
which yields
$$\varphi_{X_n}(t)=\frac{1+\rho^2(t/\lambda)^2}{1+(t/\lambda)^2}=\rho^2+(1-\rho^2)\frac{1}{1+(t/\lambda)^2}$$
so that $X_n$ is a mixture of a degenerate r.v. ($\delta_0$) and a $\text{Laplace}(0,\lambda^{-1})$ r.v. with weights $\rho^2$ and $1-\rho^2$, respectively.