Why does the definition $\ker(f)=\{(a,a')\in A\times A: f(a)=f(a')\}$ exist? This definition is for any sort of algebraic system and any sort of function. But which came first... this definition or the more familiar one? I haven't seen this used anywhere outside of pure algebra, maybe there are applications in other fields, maybe in functional analysis? But what's the use? If a function is injective in this setting then $\ker(f)$ is the diagonal of $A$. But does this add anything? Are there isomorphism theorems that use this language? Do we loose anything or gain anything, when speaking about a function's kernel in this manner?
As an example, I had an old homework assignment I found (that prompted me to ask this)
Let $f:A\to B$ be surjective. Then a map $h:A\to C$ can be factored over $f$ (i.e. $h=g\circ f$) for some $g:B\to C$, if only if, $\ker(f)\subset \ker(h)$. If this is the case then the map $g$ is unique.
I don't need (or want) a solution to this exercise (I did it years back and posting it here would only take from future students), so please do not post a solution (this is just an example of where the "undegraduate" kernel doesn't work).