Take the measure space to be $\mathbb{R}$ with Borel $\sigma$-algebra and Lebesgue measure (Although just thinking in terms of a general measure space probably works for this problem.)
Question: True or False
If $1\leq p<\infty$, $f_n\geq1$, and $f_n\rightarrow f$ in $L_p$, then $\frac{1}{f_n}\rightarrow\frac{1}{f}$ in $L_p$.
I couldn't come up with a counter example, but I'm also not able to prove the statement.
Things that may help are convergence in $L_p$ implies convergence in measure and convergence of subsequences almost uniform and almost everywhere. I tried combining fractions and using the fact that $f_n\geq1$ to string together inequalities but I wasn't able to get the desired convergence.
It is quite possible that I am missing something simple. Any Guidance?