Assume that $f_n → f$ uniformly on $S$ and each $f_n$ is continuous on $S$. Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence of points in $S$ converging to $x \in S$. Then $f_n(x_n) → f(x)$.
I'm stuck in thinking about it and I don't manage to prove it neither to find a counterexample. Thanks for your help.