I'm reading that in the ring $\mathbb{Z}[\zeta_3]$, where $\zeta_3$ is the cubic root of unity, two prime factorizations of $4 = 2 \times 2 = (1 + \sqrt{-3})(1 - \sqrt{-3})$ are equivalent, because up to unit factors $\frac{1\pm\sqrt{-3}}{2}$ they are: $4 = 2 \times 2 = 2\left(\frac{1+\sqrt{-3}}{2}\right)\times 2\left(\frac{1-\sqrt{-3}}{2}\right) = (1 + \sqrt{-3})(1 - \sqrt{-3})$.
Here factorization of $4 = 2 \times 2$ had to be multiplied by both units $\frac{1\pm\sqrt{-3}}{2}$ to get its equivalent factorization. But what if I multiply by only one of them? Will I still get equivalent factorization of $4$? For example, are these factorizations $4 = 2 \times 2 = 2\left(\frac{1+\sqrt{-3}}{2}\right)\times 2 = (1 + \sqrt{-3}) \times 2$ equivalent?
Intuitively, I understand that they are not, but I'm not quite content with an explanation for why they are not that I'm being able to come up with. My explanation is that just like factorizations $3 \times 7$ and $-3 \times 7$ of $21$ are not equivalent simply because one was multiplied by unit $-1$, factorizations of $2 \times 2$ and $(1 + \sqrt{-3}) \times 2$ are not equivalent just because one can be obtained from the other by multiplication by some unit - you have to make sure that the unit(s) used is the right one.
Is that it? Thanks.