$f$ is positive continuous function on $[0,1]$. Define $$\int_{0}^{a_n} f(x) dx = \frac{1}{n} \int_{0}^1 f(x) dx$$ where $a_n>0$. Find $ \lim_{n\to \infty} n a_n$.
It is clear that $lim_{n\to \infty} a_n =0$ because $f(x)$ is positive.I tried to use Weierstrass approximation of continuous function by polynomials but could no quite get the right way.I do not see a way to bring down this equation $\int_{0}^{a_n} f(x) dx = \frac{1}{n} \int_{0}^1 f(x) dx$ to $n a_n$.
This is a qualifying problem of real analysis. Small hint works for me.
Thanks.