A quick check of some particular situations shows that the following makes sense. I'm not sure if it is true though. So, any insight welcomed.
Let $a_1,...,a_m$ and $b_1,...,b_n$ be positive integers such that for any integer $q$ the number of $a_{i}$'s divisible by $q$ is greater than the number of $b_{i}$'s divisible by $q$. Then, $$\left.\prod_i (f(x)^{a_{i}}-x) \mathrel{}\middle|\mathrel{} \prod_j (f(x)^{b_{j}} - x)\right..$$