Thanks for clarifications. Now i am posting the question in a different way.
Suppose a vector $V$ is orthogonal to vectors $X1$ and $X2$.
$X1$ and $X2$ are linearly independent.
Now if $V$ is also orthogonal to vectors $Y1$ and $Y2$ or in other words the dot product is zero, can we say the all vectors i.e., $X1\; X2 \;Y1 \;Y2$ are linearly dependent, since all vectors share the same orthoganal vectors.
Now let dot product of $V$ is nonzero with $Y3$, can we say $X1\; X2 \;Y3$ are linearly independent.