Let $(\Omega,\mathcal A,\operatorname P)$ be a probability space, $k\in\mathbb N$ and $\mathcal F_1,\ldots,\mathcal F_k\subseteq\mathcal A$. Remember the following terminology
- $(\mathcal F_1,\ldots,\mathcal F_k)$ is called independent if $$\operatorname P\left[\bigcap_{i\in I}A_i\right]=\prod_{i\in I}\operatorname P\left[A_i\right]\tag1$$ for all $I\subseteq\{1,\ldots,k\}$ and $A_i\in\mathcal F_i$ for all $i\in I$.
- $\mathcal F_1$ and $\mathcal F_2$ are called independent (or $\mathcal F_1$ is called independent of $\mathcal F_2$) if $(\mathcal F_1,\mathcal F_2)$ is independent.
Moreover, remember the following basic results:
- Let $K\subseteq\{1,\ldots,k\}$ and $(I_k)_{k\in K}$ be a disjoint subdivision of $\{1,\ldots,k\}$. If $(\mathcal F_1,\ldots,\mathcal F_k)$ is independent, then $\left(\bigcup_{i\in I_k}\mathcal F_i\right)_{k\in K}$ is independent.
- If $\mathcal F_i\cup\{\emptyset\}$ is closed under finite intersections for all $i\in\{1,\ldots,k\}$, then $(\mathcal F_1,\ldots,\mathcal F_k)$ is independent if and only if $(\sigma(\mathcal F_1),\ldots,\sigma(\mathcal F_k))$ is independent.
Question: (a) Are we able to show $(\mathcal F_1,\ldots,\mathcal F_k)$ is independent if and only if $\mathcal F_i$ is independent of $\mathcal F_1\cup\cdots\cup\mathcal F_{i-1}$ for all $i\in\{2,\ldots,k\}$?
(b) Or do we need to replace $\mathcal F_1\cup\cdots\cup\mathcal F_{i-1}$ by $\sigma(\mathcal F_1\cup\cdots\cup\mathcal F_{i-1})$ and/or assume that each $\mathcal F_i$ is a $\sigma$-algebra?