Ok, I know the same question has already been asked here, and I am not looking for an answer even though my proof looks kind of the same. But, I need to know whether or not I am on the right track. Also, the choice of $y$ on the other proof doesn't many much sense to me. So, here it goes:
Show that $f(x) = x^2$ is not uniformly continuous on $[0,\infty)$
This is what I did:
Suppose, it is. Then, fix $\epsilon = 1 > 0.$ Let, $x < \delta \in [0, \infty)$ and $y = 2x \in [0,\infty)$. Then, according to the definition,
$$\forall \epsilon > 0, \quad\exists \delta > 0\quad\text{such that} \quad\forall x,y \in [0,\infty),\qquad\mid x-y\mid < \delta\quad \implies\quad\mid f(x) - f(y)\mid < \epsilon$$
If we replace $y = 2x$, then $$\mid x -2x\mid = \mid -x\mid = x < \delta.$$ So, that holds. Now, $$\mid f(x) - f(y)\mid = \mid x^2 - 4x^2\mid = \mid -3x^2\mid = 3x^2 > \epsilon = 1,$$ which is a contradiction depending on the choice of $x$.
Is it correct? Can I do that? Thanks.