Suppose that we have a twice-differentiable function $f$ on $x\in [0,\infty)$ such that
- $f(x)>0$ on $x\in [0,\infty)$ (i.e. strictly positive)
- $f'(x)<0$ on $x\in [0,\infty)$ (i.e. strictly decreasing)
- $f^{''}(x) >0$ on $x\in [0,\infty)$ (i.e. strictly convex)
- $\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x)=0$
and we have a twice-differentiable function $g(x)$ such that
- $f(x)>g(x)>0$ on $x\in [0,\infty)$ (i.e. strictly less then $f(x)$ and strictly positive)
- $g'(x)<0$ on $x\in [0,\infty)$ (i.e. strictly decreasing)
Is it true that there exist some $x_0$ such that $g^{''}(x)>0$ for all $x \in [x_0,\infty)$?
Or in other words does a function dominated by convex function eventually becomes convex.
As an example of $f(x)$ consider $e^{-x}$ or $\frac{1}{1+x}$.
Edit Thanks to the example given @user225318. The above is not true. What if we add more more assumption that is
3) There exists $x_1$ such that $g^{'}(x) < f^{'}(x)$ for all $x \in [x_1, \infty)$. (i.e. derivative of $g(x)$ is eventually dominted by the derivative of $f(x)$.
Edit assumption 3) makes no sense