$\newcommand{\<}{\langle} \newcommand{\>}{\rangle} $
It is a fact that for every norm $\| \|$ on a finite dimensional (real) vector space, its isometry group $\text{ISO}(|| \cdot ||)$ is contained in some isometry group of a suitable inner product. (see this question).
Now assume we have a norm $\| \|$ such that $\text{ISO}(|| \cdot ||)=\text{ISO}(\<,\>)$ for some inner product.
Is $\| \|$ necessarily induced by an inner product?
Update:
The answer is yes. The key fact is the transitivity of the isometry group. Actually, as pointed out in this question in MO, the following statement is true:
Let $X$ be finite-dimensional normed space whose isometry group acts transitively on the unit sphere (i.e, for every two unit-norm vectors $x,y∈X$ there exist a linear isometry from $(X, \| \|)$ to itself that sends $x$ to y). Then X is a Euclidean space (i.e., the norm comes from a scalar product).
The proof is decomposed of two steps:
(1) showing there exists an inner product $\< ,\>$ whose isometry group $\text{ISO}(|| \cdot ||)\subseteq \text{ISO}(\<,\>)$. The basic idea is this:
$\text{ISO}(|| \cdot ||)$ is compact, hence it admits an invariant probability measure, hence (by an averaging argument) there exists a Euclidean structure preserved by it. (The details can be found here).
(2) The transitivity of $\text{ISO}(|| \cdot ||)$ together with (1) impliy that the original norm is proportional to that Euclidean norm.