Larson (1982) defining the probability axioms talks about "mutually exclusive" events, while Poirier (1995) about "$A_1, A_2, \ldots$ as a sequence of pairwise mutually exclusive events events in the sigma-algebra $\tilde A$."
I suppose that the two notions are equivalent (they both refer two disjoint sets), right? Does this make adding the word "pairwise" superfluous on behalf of Poirier?
Is there any other context out of probability that makes this distinction (using the word pair-wise) meaningful? According to wikipedia, in Logic, "pairwise mutually exclusive" means that both propositions cannot be true simultaneously, in contrast to just mutually exclusivity that means that if one is true, then the other cannot be true.