Consider the following "product-to-difference" formula: $$\sin p\sin q=\frac{1}{2}[\cos(p-q)-\cos(p+q)].$$ I wonder whether the right-hand side can be expressed as a weighted sum of cosine functions with positive coefficients, i.e., whether a "difference" formula can be a sum formula.
For concreteness I formulate the following question: Given $a_0>0$, do there exist $a_i\ge 0$ and $b_i$ such that $$\sin (a_0x)\sin x=\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}a_i\cos b_i x?$$
With a restriction on $a_0$ and $b_i$, namely that $a_0, b_i\in \mathbb{N}$, the uniqueness of Fourier series implies that the problem has no solutions. Even more simply, we can evaluate both sides at $x=0$ to see that the equality cannot hold. To fix this, I ask the following modified question: Given $a_0>0$, do there exist $a_i\ge 0$ and $b_i$ and $\mathrm{err}_{a_0}=\mathrm{err}$ such that $$\sin (a_0x)\sin x=\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}a_i\cos b_i x +\mathrm{err}(x)$$ where the function err is an arbitrary sine series, namely, $$\mathrm{err}(x)=\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}c_i\sin d_ix$$ where $c_i$ and $d_i$ are arbitrary real numbers. Does the problem have a solution in general, without any restrictions?