# Find the number of arrangements of $k \mbox{ }1'$s, $k \mbox{ }2'$s, $\cdots, k \mbox{ }n'$s - total $kn$ cards.

Find the number of arrangements of $k \mbox{ }1'$s, $k \mbox{ }2'$s, $\cdots, k \mbox{ }n'$s - total $kn$ cards - so that no same numbers appear consecutively. For $k=2$ we can compute it by using the PIE, and it is $$\frac{1}{2^n} \sum_{i=0}^n (-1)^i \binom{n}{i} (2n-i)! 2^i$$

• We have seen similar problems here before: math.stackexchange.com/questions/76213/… My impression is that there is no general formula for the solution, but I would love to be proven wrong! – user940 Apr 9 '12 at 2:30
• quite different problem! – hkju Apr 9 '12 at 3:57
• Not so different. – user940 Apr 9 '12 at 4:00
• the problem you mentioned deals with the different number of cards, but here we consider the same number of cards. – hkju Apr 9 '12 at 6:41
• The cases $k=2$ and $k=3$ are tabulated here: oeis.org/A114938 and oeis.org/A193638 . For $k=3$ there is no simple formula given. – user940 Apr 9 '12 at 14:17

I believe the answer is given by $$\int_0^\infty e^{-x} q_k(x)^n \, dx$$ where $q_k(x) = \sum_{i=1}^k \frac{(-1)^{i-k}}{i!} {k-1 \choose i-1}x^i$ for $k\geq 1$, and $q_0(x) = 1$. In general if we allow $k_i$ of the $i$th number the answer should be $$\int_0^\infty e^{-x} \prod_i q_{k_i}(x) \, dx$$
Edit: Following some information given to me by Byron, I found that this formula is already known and that in fact $q_n(x) = (-1)^{n}L_n^{(-1)}(x)$ where $L_n^{(\alpha)} (x)$ denotes the generalized Laguerre polynomial. See Section 6 here for a labelled version. I should have mentioned this sooner; thanks Byron!
• I must be missing something. When $k=2$ and $n=1$, the correct answer is zero, but that's not what your formula gives. – user940 Apr 9 '12 at 22:36
• Ahhh, sorry! I forgot a factor of $(-1)^{i-k}$ in the expression for $q_k$. I will fix it. – Jair Taylor Apr 10 '12 at 1:46
• You can check that $q_2(x) = -x + \frac{x^2}{2}$ and then $\int_0^\infty e^{-x} ( -x + \frac{x^2}{2}) \, dx = 0$ as desired. – Jair Taylor Apr 10 '12 at 1:48
• Yes - I don't know if this helps, but $q_k(x) = \int_0^x q_{k-1}(t)\, dt - q_{k-1}(x)$. Also, $q_k(x)$ is the inverse Laplace of $(1-x)^{k-1}/x^{k+1}$. Can I ask why this question came up? – Jair Taylor Apr 11 '12 at 1:14