How do you prove that $$ \Gamma'(1)=-\gamma, $$ where $\gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant?
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6$\begingroup$ What definition the the gamma function are you using? $\endgroup$– Tim RaczkowskiApr 22, 2015 at 15:22
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4$\begingroup$ And what definition of $\gamma$? $\endgroup$– ChappersApr 22, 2015 at 15:32
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$\begingroup$ Would this answer your question ? $\endgroup$– LucianApr 22, 2015 at 16:01
3 Answers
Consider the integral form of the Gamma function, \begin{align} \Gamma(x) = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-t} \, t^{x-1} \, dt \end{align} taking the derivative with respect to $x$ yields \begin{align} \Gamma'(x) = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-t} \, t^{x-1} \, \ln(t) \, dt. \end{align} Setting $x=1$ leads to \begin{align} \Gamma'(1) = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-t} \, \ln(t) \, dt. \end{align} This is one of the many definitions of the Euler-Mascheroni constant. Hence, \begin{align} \Gamma'(1) = - \gamma = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-t} \, \ln(t) \, dt. \end{align}
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$\begingroup$ How to take derivative with respect to x of$ \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-t} \, t^{x-1} \, dt$? $\endgroup$– JonathenOct 7, 2022 at 2:36
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2$\begingroup$ @Jonathen Look up "differentiation under the integral sign". $\endgroup$ Oct 18, 2022 at 6:36
The Weierstrass product for the $\Gamma$ function gives: $$\Gamma(z+1)=e^{-\gamma z}\cdot\prod_{n\geq 1}\left(1+\frac{z}{n}\right)^{-1}e^{z/n}\tag{1}$$ hence by considering $\frac{d}{dz}\log(\cdot)$ of both terms we get: $$ \psi(z+1)=\frac{\Gamma'(z+1)}{\Gamma(z+1)}=-\gamma+\sum_{n\geq 1}\left(\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+z}\right) \tag{2}$$ and by evaluating the previous identity in $z=0$ it follows that: $$ \psi(1) = \Gamma'(1) = -\gamma.\tag{3}$$
I was wrong I cannot delete my post because I having trouble singing in sorry for my lapse in judgement and failed math skills I will try to be better the solutions above work just fine. $$\Gamma^{\prime}(z) = \frac{d}{dz} \int^{\infty}_{0} e^{-t}t^{z-1}dt = \int^{\infty}_{0} \frac{d}{dz} e^{-t}t^{z-1}dt = \int^{\infty}_{0} e^{-t} \frac{d}{dz} t^{z-1} dt = \int^{\infty}_{0} e^{-t} ln(t) t^{z-1} dt$$ $$\Gamma^{\prime}(1) = \int^{\infty}_{0} e^{-t} ln(t) t^{1-1} dt = \int^{\infty}_{0} e^{-t} ln(t) dt$$ this integral can be solved numerically to show that it comes out to $$-\gamma_{\,_\mathrm{EM}}$$
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2$\begingroup$ As it’s currently written, your answer is unclear. Please edit to add additional details that will help others understand how this addresses the question asked. You can find more information on how to write good answers in the help center. $\endgroup$– Community BotOct 6, 2022 at 18:38
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3$\begingroup$ This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review $\endgroup$ Oct 6, 2022 at 18:57