Let $(X,\mathcal{X},\mu)$ and $(Y,\mathcal{Y},\nu)$ be probability spaces, $\mathcal{X}_{0}\subset\mathcal{X}$ a (sub)sigma field and assume that $f=f(x,y)\in L^{1}_{\mu\otimes \nu}$ where $(X\times Y,\mathcal{X}\times \mathcal{Y},\mu\otimes\nu)$ is the product space.
By Fubini's theorem, the function $Y\to\mathbb{R}$ $$y\mapsto\int_{Y}|f(x,y)|d\mu(x) $$ is ($\nu$-a.e) well defined, $\mathcal{Y}-$measurable and $\nu-$integrable. In particular the function $F(x,y)$ given by $$F(x,y)=E[f(\cdot,y)|\mathcal{X}_{0}](x)$$ is well defined for $\nu-$a.e. $y$ where $E[\,\cdot\,|\mathcal{X}_{0}]$ denotes a version (depending on $y$) of the conditional expectation with respect to $\mathcal{X}_{0}$.
My question has several versions:
- (General version): is it possible in general to choose for (a.e) every $y$ a version $E[f(\cdot,y)|\mathcal{X}_{0}]$ in such a way that $F$ is $\mathcal{X}\times\mathcal{Y}-$measurable?
- (Particular version): Assume that $E[\,\cdot\,|\mathcal{X}_{0}]$ admits a regular version. This is: there exists a family of measures $\{\mu_{x}\}_{x\in X}$ such that for every $g\in L^{1}_{\mu}$ $$x\mapsto \int_{X}g(z)d\mu_{x}(z)$$ defines a version of $E[g|\mathcal{X}_{0}]$. Does the choice of this version give $\mathcal{X}\times\mathcal{Y}$- measurability for $F$?
- (Another particular version) If not covered by the answers to 1. and 2. What happens when $Y$ is the interval $[0,1]$ with Lebesgue measure?