I am currently reading a book says that the ODE $$f'' + \frac{1}{x}f' +cf =0$$ has unique solution by Picard-Lindelöf or Cauchy-Lipschitz theorem given $f(0)=1, f'(0) =0.$
I tried to rewrite this as a first order ODE by defining: $$g = \begin{bmatrix} f'\\ f \end{bmatrix} \quad A= \begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{x} &c\\ 1 &0 \end{bmatrix}$$ Then I have $$g' = Ag$$
But I found that $A$ is not bounded, so how can one apply the uniqueness theorem to this ODE? Many thanks!