I'm studying the steps to obtain the general solution of a second order Linear ODE with constant coefficients, but I haven't understood a justification.
$$y''+ay'+by=f$$ Let's look for a solution $y=\gamma_1 y_1 +\gamma_2 y_2$ where: $\gamma_1, \gamma_2 \in C^1(R)$ and $y_1, y_2$ solutions of the associated homogeneous equation.
We arrive at $$\begin {cases} \gamma_1 ' y_1+ \gamma_2 ' y_2=0\\ \gamma_1'y_1'+\gamma_2'y_2'=f(x)\end{cases} $$
The system has only one solution if $$ Det\begin{pmatrix} y_1(x) & y_2(x)\\ y_1(x)' & y_2'(x)\end {pmatrix} \ne 0$$
And (this is the step that I haven't understood) it is $\ne0$ for all $ x\in R$, because of $y_1$ and $ y_2$ are linearly independent.
But I know that if $y_1$ and $y_2$ are linearly independent, $\exists$ $x_0 \in R$ such as the Wronskian $\det W(x_0)\ne0$.
I deduce that $\exists x_0$ such as I can have only one solution of the system. But why the book says that $\forall x \in R \; \det W(x) \ne 0$?
Many thanks