I know I might sound the dumbest person in the galaxy, but I just wanted to make sure I am doing this right.

I have a rectangle say [R1] placed inside a bigger rectangle [R2]. R1 will always be <= [R2].

In order to find what percentage of [R2] surface is occupied by [R1],I do:

R1Area = R1 length * R1 breadth
R2Area = R2 length * R2 breadth
PercenageArea = (R1Area/R2Area) * 100.

Can someone confirm if this works fine - or if we need to do anything else because we are talking about surface area of rectangles here..

Thank you in advance.

  • $\begingroup$ It is correct if $R_1$ lies completely inside $R_2$. $\endgroup$ – Arpan Apr 8 '15 at 6:47

It is perfectly fine.

% $ \text{area occupied of rectangle }R_2 \text{by rectangle } R_1 = \frac{\text{area of} R_1}{\text{area of} R_2} \times 100$


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