Why does this integral equal this? It doesn't make sense to me why there is a one-half in this integral. It was on a test today and I got it wrong, my answer was $F(6) - F(2)$ Could someone explain why when I declare a function that is not directly $f(x)$, but $f(g(x))$ or some other function something weird like this occurs?
$$\int_{1}^3 \mathrm{f(2x)= \frac{1}2(F(6) - F(2))}$$ Where: $$F'(x) = f(x)$$
I'm more interested in this as a special case as I thought that having a function within a function only changes the values that are plugged into that function and I find this to be a little bit weird, and I want to know why this has to happen.