If $\gcd(a,b)=1$, is it true that $$\gcd(a^x-b^x,a^y-b^y)=a^{\gcd(x,y)}-b^{\gcd(x,y)}\;?$$
I know that $a^{\gcd(x,y)}-b^{\gcd(x,y)}\mid a^x-b^x$ and $a^{\gcd(x,y)}-b^{\gcd(x,y)}|a^y-b^y$, so I thought of something like let $n$ be a divisor of $a^x-b^x$ and $a^y-b^y$, then $n$ must also be a divisor of $a^{\gcd(x,y)}-b^{\gcd(x,y)}$ but I am stuck.