The sampling distribution of $\bar{X}$ defined in a book that I am reading is $\bar{X}=\frac { 1 }{ n } \sum _{ i=1 }^{ n }{ X_{ j } } $.
I know $X_1, X_2, ..., X_n$ are random variables. But what is confusing to me is that should $n$ here be seen as the number of observations or the number of trials in each observation?
If the $n$ here is the number of observations, then, does that mean that the $X_1, X_2, ..., X_n$ are mean values of their own individual trials? For example, $X_1$ is the average of say 10 trials. So $X_1$ itself is $X_1=\frac { 1 }{ 10 } \sum _{ i=1 }^{ 10 }{ Y_{ i } } $, where $Y_{1...10}$ are the trials made in the observation set of $X_1$. In this case, however, $X_1, X_2, ..., X_n$ are more of like constant instead of random variables any more. Then it shouldn't be just $X_1, X_2, ..., X_n$ but $\bar{X_1}, \bar{X_2}, ..., \bar{X_n}$ and $\bar{X}=\bar{X_1}, \bar{X_2}, ..., \bar{X_n}$. But this doesn't look like how it is defined.
Then, if the $n$ here is the number of trials in each observation, then $\bar{X}$ is just the mean value of the trials in this single observation, which again doesn't make a lot of sense because this is just average of one set of observation. From my understanding, Sampling Distribution is the "average of the averages of $n$ sets of observations" and so this interpretation doesn't align with my understanding too.
Which of my interpretations is right? What is the right way to look at the definition of the sampling distribution of $\bar{X}$ as $\bar{X}=\frac { 1 }{ n } \sum _{ i=1 }^{ n }{ X_{ j } } $ and what are the $X_1, X_2, ..., X_n$?