Calculate $\lim\limits_{y\to{b}}\frac{y-b}{\ln{y}-\ln{b}}$ How can we find $\displaystyle \lim_{y\to{b}}\frac{y-b}{\ln{y}-\ln{b}}$ without using:
(a) L'Hôpital's rule, (b) the limit $\displaystyle \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{e^h-1}{h} = 1$, and (c) the fact that $\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx}\left(e^x\right) = e^x$. 
The reason for the conditions is that with this limit I'm trying to prove (c), and I've done so with (b) and I gather it would be circular to use (a). So that's that. Also, I would appreciate if you could share one or more ways of proving that the derivative of $e^x$ is $e^x$. Thanks a lot for your time.  
 A: If $e^x=\sum_{n\geq0}x^n/n!$, then you can show easily that $e^{x+y}=e^xe^y$. Then $$\frac{e^{x+h}-e^x}{h} = \frac{e^h-1}{h}e^x,$$ and to conclude that $\frac{d}{dx}e^x=e^x$ we need only then show that $$\frac{e^h-1}{h}\to1$$ if $h\to0$. Using your definition, that is easy.
A: We can convert your $\lim $ into the inverse of the derivative of $f(y)=\ln y
$, evaluated at $y=b$
$$\underset{y\rightarrow b}{\lim }\dfrac{y-b}{\ln y-\ln b}=\dfrac{1}{\underset{
y\rightarrow b}{\lim }\dfrac{\ln y-\ln b}{y-b}}=\dfrac{1}{\dfrac{d}{dy}\left.
\ln y\right\vert _{y=b}}=\dfrac{1}{\left. \dfrac{1}{y}\right\vert _{y=b}}=%
\dfrac{1}{\dfrac{1}{b}}=b.$$
A: If $f$ is convex on $[a,b]$ or $[b,a]$ then
$$ f\Big(\frac{a+b}2\Big) \le \frac1{b-a}\int_a^b f(x)\,dx \le \frac{f(a)+f(b)}2 \tag{$\ast$} $$
(The first inequality is by Jensen, since $\frac{a+b}2=\frac1{b-a}\int_a^b x\,dx$; the second comes from the change of variables $x=(1-t)a+tb=a+t(b-a)$ and applying the convexity of $f$ pointwise.)
Taking $f(x)=\frac1x$ and taking reciprocals throughout yields
$$ \frac1{\frac12(\frac1a+\frac1b)} \le \frac{b-a}{\log b-\log a} \le \frac{a+b}2 $$
which is the inequality of the harmonic, logarithmic, and arithmetic means.  By squeezing,
$$ \lim_{a\to b} \frac{b-a}{\log b-\log a} = b $$
Notes:


*

*In fact the logarithmic mean is also bounded by the geometric mean, i.e.,
$$ \sqrt{ab} \le \frac{b-a}{\log b - \log a} $$
This is stronger than the bound by the harmonic mean proved above, but the only proof I know is to take $f(x)=e^x$ in ($\ast$), and to evaluate the resulting integral we need to use $\frac{d}{dx} e^x = e^x$.

*An advantage (?) of this proof is that it doesn't need the fundamental theorem of calculus.  (In fact it verifies FTC for $\int\frac1x\,dx$.)  That's assuming you define $\log$ as the integral of $\frac1x$, that you prove a change of variables theorem for linear changes of variables directly by Riemann sums, and that you evaluate $\int_a^b x\,dx$ directly by Riemann sums.

A: Let us look at the limit in the title and the definition of $\log x$  (please excuse me for using $\log$ notation instead of $\ln$) as in your comment,
$$\log x =\int_1^x \frac{1}{t}dt$$
By the fundamental theorem of calculus we have 
$$\frac{d}{dx}\log x = \frac{1}{x}$$
on the other hand 
$$f'(x)=\lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}=\lim_{y\to x}\frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x}$$
hence 
$$\lim_{y\to x}\frac{y-x}{\log y-\log x}=\lim_{y\to x}\frac{1}{\frac{\log y-\log x}{y-x}}=\frac{1}{1/x}=x$$
where in the last step we used the quotient rule 
$$\lim_{y\to a}\,g(y)=A\, \text{ and }\,\lim_{y\to a}\,h(y)=B\ne0\text{ implies }\lim_{y\to a}\,\frac{g(y)}{h(y)}=\frac{A}{B}$$
with $g(y)=1$.
A: Say $y = b(1+\epsilon)$. Then $\ln y - \ln b \approx \epsilon$ whereas $y - b = b\epsilon$. So it all boils down to showing $\ln (1+\epsilon) \approx \epsilon$.
