I am wondering about a beginner proof I am trying to do, and also a more general question.
I am working on the question, $$\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)}\frac{x^2y^2}{x^2+y^2}$$
So I looked at a few cases and it seemed to me that it might be reasonable that the limit is 0, so I tried to do an epsilon delta proof.
that is, I am under the impression that if I can show that for any $\epsilon >0$ there exists a $\delta > 0$, such that if $0< \sqrt{x^2+y^2}< \delta $ then $| \frac{x^2y^2}{x^2+y^2}-0|< \epsilon$ ( also I can remove the absolute value signs because we have only squares).
So then I thought I could do something like, $$x^2 \le x^2+y^2 \rightarrow \frac{x^2}{x^2+y^2} \le 1 \rightarrow \frac{x^2y^2}{x^2+y^2} \le y^2 \le x^2+y^2$$ ( using that $y^2 \le x^2+y^2$ as well)
But now I am not sure how to proceed, should I say let $\delta=\epsilon$ ? Is that even valid to say. Also, I have not looked at solutions or anything so I am not sure if my work is correct either, so i appreciate any comments/answers!
Thankyou.