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$G$ is a Lie group and consider $L_{g}: G \rightarrow G$ ($L_g(h)=gh$). What i need to show that $L_{g}$ is diffeomorphism. Is it something obvious? Can someone explain it to me?

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  • $\begingroup$ @RobinGoodfellow "isomorphism" has now been removed; you can remove the comment. $\endgroup$ – Marc van Leeuwen Mar 23 '15 at 11:09
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The fact that it is a diffeomorphism comes from the very definition of Lie Group: the operation $G\times G \to G$ is a smooth map, and $L_g$ is a restriction of this map, so it is smooth. The inverse is $L_{g^{-1}}$, and that's smooth by the same argumet.

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