I encountered a homework problem that says:
If $A$ is a bounded linear operator from $X$ to $Y$. And $K$ is a compact operator from $X$ to $Y$, where $X$ and $Y$ are both Banach spaces, and Ran$(A)\subset$ Ran$(K)$. Then $A$ is also a compact operator.
I tried to use the definition of a compact operator to solve this one. (Indeed, the professor only covered the definition of compact operator in class and said that it would be enough for the homework problems.) Here's what I did. I started by choosing a bounded sequence $x_n$ in X and since A is bounded, $A(x_n)$ is also bounded. And from the assumption that $R(A)\subset R(K)$, I conclude that there exist $y_n\in X$, s.t. $K(y_n)=A(x_n)$. Now if I can somehow prove that $y_n$ is bounded in X, I can easily prove the problem by using the compactness of K. But this is exactly the place where I am stuck. Please help me out. Am I going along the right path?
Also, I had another problem saying that: If X is infinitely dimensional and K is an compact operator and is one to one, then I-K must not be compact.
I proved this one, but didn't really use the assumption that K is one to one. I looked over and over again but couldn't nd where I made the mistake.
Here's what I did: Choose any sequence in X that is of norm 1. Then suppose I-K is compact. It follows there must exists a subsequence $x_{n_k}$ that $(I-K)(x_{n_k})$ converges. And since K is compact, there exists a sub-subsequence $x_{n_{k_j}}$ that $K(x_{n_{k_j}})$. Now I claim that in fact $x_{n_{k_j}}$ converges in X. Indeed, $x_{n_{k_j}}=(I-K)(x_{n_{k_j}})+K(x_{n_{k_j}})$. Hence, for any sequence on the unit sphere, I've found a subsequence that converges. This means the unit sphere is compact, which contradicts with X being infinitely dimensional.
Did I do something wrong?