The question is to prove
$\neg (p \wedge q) \to (p \vee r)$ equivalent to $p \vee r$
So far, I got
- $¬[¬(p \wedge q)] \vee (p \vee r)$ - implication
- $(p \wedge q) \vee (p \vee r)$ - double negation
Now, is this question logically not equivalent?
Or is there some way I can prove this is logically equivalent?