I was surprised that I wasn't able to find this question already posted; if it has been posted and I just didn't find the right search terms, let me know.
Let $X$ be any complex variety. A priori, any set which is dense in the classical topology on $X$ is automatically dense in the Zariski topology on $X$, just because the Zariski topology has fewer open/closed sets.
For the converse, this question, though distinct, does shed some light: in $\mathbb A_{\mathbb C}^1$, any infinite subset is Zariski dense, but certainly not necessarily classically dense.
But in my experience, it seems that any Zariski open subset of $X$ that is Zariski dense is also classically dense. Is this true? How do you prove it?