Let $U$ be an open convex subset of $\mathbb R^n$ and $f:U\to\mathbb R$ a convex function on it.

  • It is a well-known fact that if the second partial derivatives exist everywhere on $U$ and are all continuous (i.e., if $f\in\mathcal C^2$), then the Hessian of $f$ is symmetric, that is, $\partial^2 f/(\partial x_i\partial x_j)=\partial^2 f/(\partial x_j\partial x_i)$ for any $i,j\in\{1,\ldots,n\}$. (Actually, $f$ needn't even be convex for this result.)
  • In fact, Alexandroff's theorem states that the Hessian exists and is symmetric almost everywhere with respect to the $n$-dimensional Lebesgue measure, without any additional assumptions beyond convexity.

Question: It is possible for $f$ to be twice differentiable (and thus have, not necessarily everywhere-continuous, second-order partial derivatives) everywhere on $U$ but a Hessian that is not symmetric at some $x\in U$?

Update: Dudley (1977) gives an example of a convex function with an existent and asymmetric Hessian at the origin. This counterexample doesn't settle my question, however, because Dudley's function doesn't have a second-order (Fréchet) derivative (i.e., not twice differentiable) at the origin (even though the second-order partial derivatives exist). I would like to see a convex function with both an existent second-order Fréchet derivative and with asymmetric Hessian at some point (which necessarily implies that some of the second-order partial derivatives are discontinuous at that point).


It turns out that twice-differentiability implies that the Hessian is symmetric even without convexity and with no reference to whether the second-order partial derivatives are continuous! The proof below is based on Theorem 8.12.2 in the book Foundations of Modern Analysis by Dieudonné (1969, p. 180).

Claim: Let $U\subseteq\mathbb R^n$ be an open set and $f:U\to\mathbb R$ a function. Suppose that $f$ is (Fréchet) differentiable on $U$ and that it is twice (Fréchet) differentiable at $\mathbf x_0\in U$. Then, the Hessian matrix $\mathbf H(\mathbf x_0)$ at $\mathbf x_0$ is symmetric.

Proof: Let $\mathbf D:U\to\mathbb R^n$ denote the gradient function of $f$. Fix $\varepsilon>0$. Since $\mathbf D$ is Fréchet differentiable at $\mathbf x_0$ by assumption, it follows that there exists some $\delta>0$ such that $\|\mathbf v\|<4\delta$ implies that $$\left\|\mathbf D(\mathbf x_0+\mathbf v)-\mathbf D(\mathbf x_0)-\mathbf H(\mathbf x_0)\cdot\mathbf v\right\|\leq\varepsilon\|\mathbf v\|.$$ There is no loss of generality in taking $\delta$ to be so small that the open ball $B(4\delta,\mathbf x_0)$ is contained in the open set $U$.

For any $i,j\in\{1,\ldots,n\}$, let $\mathbf e_i$ and $\mathbf e_j$ be the corresponding standard basis vectors of unit length. Let $\mathbf s\equiv\delta\mathbf e_i$ and $\mathbf t\equiv\delta\mathbf e_j$. It is clear that $\mathbf x_0+\xi\mathbf s+\mathbf t$ and $\mathbf x_0+\xi\mathbf s$ are both in $U$ whenever $\xi\in[0,1]$; this is because $\|\xi\mathbf s+\mathbf t\|<4\delta$ and $\|\xi\mathbf s\|<4\delta$. Define the following function $g:[0,1]\to\mathbb R$: $$g(\xi)\equiv f(\mathbf x_0+\xi\mathbf s+\mathbf t)-f(\mathbf x_0+\xi\mathbf s)\quad\forall\xi\in[0,1].$$

Clearly, $g$ is continuous on $[0,1]$ and differentiable on $(0,1)$. Lagrange's mean-value theorem, in turn, implies that there exists some $\xi\in(0,1)$ such that $$g(1)-g(0)=g'(\xi)=\mathbf s\cdot\left[\mathbf D(\mathbf x_0+\xi\mathbf s+\mathbf t)-\mathbf D(\mathbf x_0+\xi\mathbf s)\right],$$ using the chain rule.

Next, one can derive the following chain of inequalities (the first one uses the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality): \begin{align*} &\left|g(1)-g(0)-\mathbf s\cdot\mathbf H(\mathbf x_0)\cdot\mathbf t\right|\leq\underbrace{\|\mathbf s\|}_{=\delta}\left\|[\mathbf D(\mathbf x_0+\xi\mathbf s+\mathbf t)-\mathbf D(\mathbf x_0)]-[\mathbf D(\mathbf x_0+\xi\mathbf s)-\mathbf D(\mathbf x_0)]-\mathbf H(\mathbf x_0)\cdot\mathbf t\right\|\\ =&\,\delta\left\|[\mathbf D(\mathbf x_0+\xi\mathbf s+\mathbf t)-\mathbf D(\mathbf x_0)-\mathbf H(\mathbf x_0)\cdot(\xi\mathbf s+\mathbf t)]-[\mathbf D(\mathbf x_0+\xi\mathbf s)-\mathbf D(\mathbf x_0)-\mathbf H(\mathbf x_0)\cdot(\xi\mathbf s)]\right\|\\ \leq&\,\delta\varepsilon\left(\|\xi\mathbf s+\mathbf t\|+\|\xi\mathbf s\|\right)<8\delta^2\varepsilon. \end{align*} That is, one has that $$|f(\mathbf x_0+\mathbf s+\mathbf t)-f(\mathbf x_0+\mathbf s)-f(\mathbf x_0+\mathbf t)+f(\mathbf x_0)-\delta^2\mathbf e_i\cdot\mathbf H(\mathbf x_0)\cdot\mathbf e_j|<8\delta^2\varepsilon,$$ and, by a completely analogous and symmetric reasoning in which $\mathbf s$ and $\mathbf t$ are interchanged, $$|f(\mathbf x_0+\mathbf s+\mathbf t)-f(\mathbf x_0+\mathbf s)-f(\mathbf x_0+\mathbf t)+f(\mathbf x_0)-\delta^2\mathbf e_j\cdot\mathbf H(\mathbf x_0)\cdot\mathbf e_i|<8\delta^2\varepsilon.$$ Given that $\mathbf e_i\cdot\mathbf H(\mathbf x_0)\cdot\mathbf e_j=h_{ij}(\mathbf x_0)\equiv\partial^2 f/(\partial x_i\partial x_j)(\mathbf x_0)$, the preceding two inequalities imply that $$\left|h_{ij}(\mathbf x_0)-h_{ji}(\mathbf x_0)\right|<16\varepsilon.$$ Taking $\varepsilon$ to be arbitrarily small, one sees that $h_{ij}(\mathbf x_0)=h_{ji}(\mathbf x_0)$. $\blacksquare$

  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thanks for this excellent exposition of Dieudonne's theorem. This is quite a slick proof. I didn't understand the proof in Dieudonne's real analysis book at first glance: this answer made everything quite clear. +1. $\endgroup$ – Balarka Sen Feb 12 '16 at 20:55

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