Let $X$ and $Y$ be topological spaces. Let $f: X \rightarrow Y$ be a bijections such that $f(U)$ is open in $Y$ if and only if $U$ is open in $X$. Then $f$ is a homeomorphism and an open map. In particular, it is a surjective open map and, therefore, it is a quotient map, right?
Now let $X$ be a topological space and let $Y$ be the set of point in the topological space $Y$ above. Munkre's states that if $f:X \rightarrow Y$ is a surjective map then there is exactly one topology on $Y$ relative to which $f$ is a quotient map and it's the quotient topology defined by: $U$ is open in $Y$ if $f^{-1}(U)$ is open in $X$.
Therefore, I deduce that if $X$ and $Y$ are topological spaces and $f: X \rightarrow Y$ is a homeomorphism, then $f$ is a quotient map and $Y$ has the quotient topology. This seems fishy. Is it correct or incorrect?