I've spent the better part of this day trying to show from first principles that this sequence tends to 1. Could anyone give me an idea of how I can approach this problem?
$$ \lim_{n \to +\infty} n^{\frac{1}{n}} $$
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It only takes a minute to sign up.
Sign up to join this communityI've spent the better part of this day trying to show from first principles that this sequence tends to 1. Could anyone give me an idea of how I can approach this problem?
$$ \lim_{n \to +\infty} n^{\frac{1}{n}} $$
You can use $\text{AM} \ge \text{GM}$.
$$\frac{1 + 1 + \dots + 1 + \sqrt{n} + \sqrt{n}}{n} \ge n^{1/n} \ge 1$$
$$ 1 - \frac{2}{n} + \frac{2}{\sqrt{n}} \ge n^{1/n} \ge 1$$
Let $\epsilon>0$. Choose $N$ so that ${1\over N}<\epsilon$. Noting that ${ n+1 \over n}<1+\epsilon$ for $n\ge N$: $$ N+1\le N(1+\epsilon) $$ $$ N+2 \le (N+1)(1+\epsilon)\le N (1+\epsilon)^2 $$ $$ N+3 \le (N+2)(1+\epsilon)\le N (1+\epsilon)^3 $$ $$\vdots$$ $$\tag{1} N+k \le (N+k-1)(1+\epsilon) \le N(1+\epsilon)^k. $$ Using $(1)$, we have for $n\ge N$: $$ n=N+(n-N)\le (1+\epsilon)^{n-N}N; $$ which may be written as $$ n\le B (1+\epsilon)^n, $$ where $B=N/(1+\epsilon)^N$.
Thus, for $n\ge N$ we have $$\tag {2} \root n\of { n}\le B^{1/n}(1+\epsilon). $$ Since $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty} B^{1/n}=1$, it follows from $(2)$ that $\limsup\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty} \root n\of { n}\le 1+\epsilon$.
But, as $\epsilon$ was arbitrary, we must have $\limsup\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty} \root n\of {n}\le 1 $.
Since, obviously, $\liminf\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty} \root n\of {n}\ge 1 $, we have $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty} \root n\of {n}= 1 $, as desired.
One could also argue as follows:
Note $\root n\of n>1$ for $n>1$. For $n>1$, write $\root n\of n=1+c_n$ for some $c_n>0$. Then, by the Binonial Theorem we have, for $n>1$, $$\textstyle n=1 +nc_n+{1\over2} n(n-1)c_n^2+\cdots\ge 1+{1\over2}n(n-1)c_n^2; $$ whence $$ n-1\ge\textstyle {1\over2}n(n-1)c_n^2. $$ So, $c_n^2\le {2\over n}$ for $n>1$; whence $$ 0<\root n\of n -1=c_n\le \sqrt{2/n} $$ for $n>1$, and the result follows.
Fix $ \epsilon > 0 $. Then $\displaystyle \frac{(1+ \epsilon)^n}{n} \to \infty$ by the ratio test, so for all but a finite number of $n$ we have $ 1 < \displaystyle \frac{(1+ \epsilon)^n}{n},$ which can be rearranged to $\sqrt[n]{n} < 1+\epsilon .$ Thus $\sqrt[n]{n} \to 1.$
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} n^{1/n} = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} e^{\frac{1}{n} \ln n} = e^{\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n} \ln n}$$
With L'Hôpital's rule you can prove that $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n} \ln {n} = 0$. Thus, $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} n^{1/n} = e^0 = 1$.
Applying the Binomial Theorem, we can say $$ \begin{align} \left(1+\sqrt{\frac2n}\right)^n &\ge\color{#C00}{1}+\overbrace{\binom{n}{1}\sqrt{\frac2n}}^{\sqrt{2n}}+\overbrace{\ \binom{n}{2}\frac2n\ }^{\color{#C00}{n-1}}\tag{1a}\\[6pt] &\ge\color{#C00}{n}\tag{1b} \end{align} $$ Therefore, $$ 1\le n^{1/n}\le1+\sqrt{\frac2n}\tag2 $$ to which we can apply the Squeeze Theorem.
Let's see a very elementary proof. Without loss of generality we proceed replacing $n$ by $2^n$ and get that: $$ 1\leq\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} n^{\frac{1}{n}}=\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} {2^n}^{\frac{1}{{2}^{n}}}=\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} {2}^{\frac{n}{{2}^{n}}}\leq\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} {2}^{\raise{4pt}\left.n\middle/\binom{n}{2}\right.}=2^0=1$$
By Squeeze Theorem the proof is complete.
Let $x_{n} = n^{\frac{1}{n}} - 1$. Then
$$ (x_{n}+1)^{n} = n.$$
By binomial expansion, you can deduce that
$$ x_{n} < \frac{2}{n-1}$$
which goes to zero and hence you have your result.
We know that
$$\liminf \frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\le \liminf (a_n)^{1/n}\le \limsup(a_n)^{1/n} \le \limsup \frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$$
if $(a_n)$ is a bounded sequence of positive real numbers. Take $a_n = 1/n$ and we have $\lim n^{1/n}=1 $
From binomial theorem, $(1+\epsilon)^n > (n(n-1)\epsilon^2)/2$ when $\epsilon > 0$. For any given small $\epsilon > 0$, when $n > 2/\epsilon^2 + 1$, $(1+\epsilon)^n > (n(n-1)\epsilon^2)/2 > n$, which means $n^{1/n} < 1 + \epsilon$.
It is totally basic and fun to do it this way:
We will prove that
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \sqrt[n]{\frac{n}{2^n}} = \frac{1}{2}$$
from which your limit follows because
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \sqrt[n]{\frac{1}{2^n}} = \frac{1}{2}$$
Replace $$n=2^{2^m}$$
$$\lim_{m \to \infty} \sqrt[2^{2^m}]{\frac{2^{2^m}}{2^{2^{2^m}}}} = \lim_{m \to \infty} \sqrt[2^{2^m}]{\frac{1}{2^{2^{2^m}-2^m}}} =$$
$$\lim_{m \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^{1-\frac{2^m}{2^{2^m}}}} = \lim_{m \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^{1-\frac1{2^{2^m-m}}}}$$
Now $\lim\limits_{m \to \infty} 2^m-m \to \infty$ because the difference between two successive terms $(2^{m+1}-(m+1))-(2^{m}-(m))=2^m-1$ tends to infinity meaning
$$\lim_{m \to \infty} 2^{2^m-m} = \infty $$ $$\lim_{m \to \infty} \frac1{2^{2^m-m}}=0$$
$$\lim_{m \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^{1-\frac1{2^{2^m-m}}}}=\frac{1}{2}$$
Your
$$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} n^{\frac1{n}}=1$$ follows.
You can estimate \begin{eqnarray} 1 & \leq & n^{\frac{1}{n}} = {e^{\ln(n)}}^{\frac{1}{e^{\ln(n)}}} = e^{2 \frac{1}{1!} \big(\frac{1}{2}\ln(n)\big)^1 e^{-\ln(n)}} \leq e^{2 \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{1}{k!}\big(\frac{1}{2}\ln(n)\big)^k e^{-\ln(n)}} \\ & = & e^{2 e^{\frac{1}{2} \ln(n)}e^{-\ln(n)}} = e^{2e^{-\frac{1}{2}\ln(n)}} \rightarrow 1 \ , \end{eqnarray} as $n \rightarrow \infty$. Increasingness of $e^x$, continuity of $e^x$ and other basic properties of $e^x$ and $\ln(x)$ are assumed. Hence the limit in the question exists and equals to $1$.
I want to add a proof that is based in the fact that $\sum \frac{a^k}{k!}=e^a$. In my opinion I found this fact easier to prove that $AM\ge GM$ inequality, thus from my point of view this is more basic. More over: we dont suppose or guess that the limit is $1$.
First suppose we proved that $\sqrt[n]{n}>\sqrt[n+1]{n+1}$ for $n\ge 2$, what is easy to do IMHO. From this proof we get very important information: the sequence $(\sqrt[n]{n})$ is decreasing and bounded below by $1$.
Then, by the monotone convergence theorem, exists some $L$ such that for all $\epsilon>0$ exists $N\in\Bbb N$ such that
$$|\sqrt[n]{n}-L|<\epsilon,\forall n\ge N$$
Suppose that $L>1$. From the square root of $2$ we know that $L<2$, in particular $L=1+a$ with $1>a>0$. Then it must be the case that $\sqrt[n]{n}-L>0$ because the sequence is bounded below by $L$. Then
$$\sqrt[n]{n}-1-a>0\iff \sqrt[n]{n}>1+a\iff n>(1+a)^n\iff 1>\frac1n (1+a)^n$$
for all $n\in\Bbb N$. Expanding the RHS we have that
$$\frac1n(1+a)^n=\frac1n\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n}{k}a^k=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{(n-1)!}{(n-k)!}\cdot\frac{a^k}{k!}\ge\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\frac{a^k}{k!}$$
Then taking limits we have that
$$1\ge\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac1n(1+a)^n\ge\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\frac{a^k}{k!}=e^a>1$$
what is a contradiction. Thus $L=1$.$\Box$
I posted a similar question and got a great answer that I don't want to be deleted with my question, so I'm posting that great answer here.
By
@Dr. Sundar
To show that $$ \lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty} \ a_n = 1 $$ where $$ a_n = n^{1 \over n} $$
Let $0 < \epsilon < 1 $ be given.
We note that $$ |n^{1 \over n} - 1 | < \epsilon \iff > - \epsilon < n^{1 \over n} - 1 < \epsilon \iff 1 - \epsilon < n^{1 \over n} < 1 + \epsilon $$ which is equivalent to $$ (1 - \epsilon)^n > < n < (1 + \epsilon)^n \tag{1} $$
Let $n \geq 1$ be any integer.
Clearly, $$ (1 - \epsilon)^n < 1 \leq n $$
This proves the left part of (1).
To prove the right part of (1), we note that $$ ( 1 + \epsilon )^n = > \sum\limits_{k = 0}^n \ \left( \matrix{n \cr > k \cr} \right) \ \epsilon^k > \left( \matrix{n \cr > 2 \cr} \right) \ \epsilon^2 > = {n (n - 1) \over 2} \ \epsilon^2 $$
We define $m = \lceil{ { 2 \over \epsilon^2} + 1 \rceil}$.
We choose $n > m$. Then we have $$ (1 + \epsilon)^n > {n (n - 1) \over > 2} \ \epsilon^2 > n $$
Thus, we have shown that for all $n > m$, (1) is true.
This completes the proof. $ \ \ \ \ \ \ \blacksquare$