I was playing around with the square numbers and I noticed something:
$$\left. \begin{array}{r} &\left. \begin{array}{r} &1^2 = 1\\ &2^2=4\\ \end{array} \right\} \ 3 \\ &\left. \begin{array}{r} &2^2 = 4\\ &3^2=9\\ \end{array} \right\} \ 5 \end{array} \right\} \ 2$$ $$\left. \begin{array}{r} &\left. \begin{array}{r} &3^2 = 9\\ &4^2=16\\ \end{array} \right\} \ 7 \\ &\left. \begin{array}{r} &4^2 = 16\\ &5^2=25\\ \end{array} \right\} \ 9 \end{array} \right\} \ 2$$
The fact the difference of consecutive squares is $2n+1$ is easily justified, $(n+1)^2-n^2=2n+1$.
However, my question is about this:
$$\text{Let } D_n := |a_{n+1}-a_n| = 2n+1, \text{Where } a_n=n^2$$ $$\text{Then } |D_{n+1}-D_n|=|2(n+1)+1-(2n+1)|=2$$ And this is the same as the derivative of $D_n$, $\displaystyle \frac{d}{dn}(2n+1)=2$. This makes some intuitive sense to me, $2$ is how much the difference between squares changes. However, talking about derivatives in $\mathbb{N}$ seems fallacious to me. Is this just a happy coincidence?