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I face a sequence of confusing questions:

In complex plane, note that $arctan(z)$ denote the principal branch of inverse complex tanget function ,by requiring $$\frac{-\pi}{2} < \mbox{Re}(\arctan(z))\leq \frac{\pi}{2} .$$

  1. Let $g(z) = f(\tan z)$. Show that $g'(z) = 1$ for all $z$ in some domain $D$. Then describe $D$.

    I am not sure because we do not know what $g$ actually is. So how can be sure about where $D$ should $g'(z) = 1$. Anyway, I diff it and get $$1= f'(\tan(z))\sec^2 (z)$$ for all $z \in D$. So $f'(\tan(z)) = \cos^2 (z)$ which yileds $f'(z) = \cos^2 (\arctan(z)).$ How to go on form this stage ?

These following 3 questions are connected to this one:

  1. Conclude that $f(z) = \arctan (z)$ for $|z| < 1.$
  2. Why does the Taylor series for $\arctan$ at the origin not converge in a disc larger than $|z| < 1 ?$
  3. Show that $\arctan(1)$ is given by $$\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^k}{2k+1}$$

Since I stuck at the first one, the following questions do not make much sense for me. Anyway, for 3) I guess that finding radius of convergence might help. Could anyone give suggestions please ?

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  • $\begingroup$ @dustin: it's not uncommon to use $\operatorname{Arctan}$ for a particular branch (often the principal branch) of the complex inverse tangent. Same distinction as $\log$ vs. $\operatorname{Log}$. $\endgroup$ – mrf Feb 17 '15 at 13:48
  • $\begingroup$ @dustin It is as mrf point out. I would like to use the principal branch of inverse function of complex tangent function, $Arctan \ (z).$ $\endgroup$ – Both Htob Feb 17 '15 at 13:56
  • $\begingroup$ @dustin Alright, I will use $\arctan(z)$ and emphasize that it denotes the principal branch instead. $\endgroup$ – Both Htob Feb 17 '15 at 14:06
  • $\begingroup$ @dustin it is okay now. I agree that it will be better if I can use valid Latex format than violate it. Anyway, could anyone suggest how to solve the problem ? $\endgroup$ – Both Htob Feb 17 '15 at 14:11
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    $\begingroup$ You can use \operatorname{Arctan} z to get $\operatorname{Arctan} z$. $\endgroup$ – mrf Feb 17 '15 at 16:25
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From your equation $f'(z) = \cos^2(\arctan(z))$, we have that $$ f'(z) = \frac{1}{z^2+1}. $$ If you don't see it, draw a triangle. Integrating with respect to $z$ we get $$ f(z) = \arctan(z) + C $$ On the principal domain, $\arctan(\tan(z)) = z$. Therefore, $f(\tan(z)) = z + C$. This should help with $(1)$ and $(2)$. Are you good now?

For $(3)$, consider $$ \frac{d}{dz}\arctan(z) = \frac{1}{1 - (-z^2)} = \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty}(-z^2)^n\tag{*} $$ Now, $(*)$ convergences when $$ 1/R = \limsup_{n\to\infty}\sqrt[n]{\lvert(-z^2)\rvert^n} = \limsup_{n\to\infty} z^2 = \lvert z\rvert^2 < 1 $$ That is, when $z$ is in the unit disc. Now you can integrate $(*)$ term by term to get the power series and set $z=0$ to solve for the constant of integration. Now, that you have the power series, plug in $z=1$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Okay, I try to make them into $\frac{1}{z^2+1}$. Anyway, I am not sure, I think that using triangle as in real might not a good reason to claim that it is actually $\frac{1}{z^2+1}$ since this is a complex function. $\endgroup$ – Both Htob Feb 17 '15 at 19:50
  • $\begingroup$ That is real, isn't it ? I do not know I can do that with complex tangent $$\tan(z) = \frac{e^{iz} - e^{-iz}}{i(e^{iz} + e^{-iz})}$$ where $z \in \mathbb{C}$. $\endgroup$ – Both Htob Feb 17 '15 at 20:04
  • $\begingroup$ Yeah, I know that $\mathbb{R}^2$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{C}$ as rings. But you sure about that ? That I can do as $\mathbb{R}^2$. If yes, thank you very much for your help. Sorry for asking a lot. $\endgroup$ – Both Htob Feb 17 '15 at 20:11
  • $\begingroup$ @BothHtob you can read this to see if it helps $\endgroup$ – dustin Feb 17 '15 at 20:12
  • $\begingroup$ Okay. Thank you very much for your help. I will find some information and try to find method that fit my understanding about complex analysis. It is very new to me so I do not know what is valid to do and what is invalid to do. $\endgroup$ – Both Htob Feb 17 '15 at 20:15

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