Prove for integers $a$, $b$, and $c$, if $\gcd(a, b) = 1$, $a|c$, and $b|c$ then $ab|c$.
Part b of this question is: "Is the converse true? Prove or disprove accordingly?"
Hey, so I've been drawing a blank for at least an hour now. I played around with the definition of divisibility and the gcd of one but couldn't get anywhere. Could someone help out?