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I know for integers we have

$$\operatorname{lcm}(n,m) = \frac{nm}{\gcd(n,m)}$$

Does this hold for polynomials? i.e. $\operatorname{lcm}(f(x),g(x)) = \dfrac{f(x)g(x)}{\gcd(f(x),g(x))}$

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  • $\begingroup$ Do you mean lcm instead of lcd? $\endgroup$
    – Extremal
    Feb 14, 2015 at 20:11
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    $\begingroup$ Polynomials over what type of coefficient ring? $\endgroup$ Feb 14, 2015 at 20:19
  • $\begingroup$ Polynomials over a field $F_3$, that's all the information I have. And yes, I meant lcm, thanks Mathi! $\endgroup$
    – jstnchng
    Feb 14, 2015 at 20:46
  • $\begingroup$ \gcd is a standard operator name; you don't need to write \operatorname{gcd}. ${}\qquad{}$ $\endgroup$ Feb 14, 2015 at 23:40

1 Answer 1

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Yes it does hold but with a little difference! $\operatorname{L.C.M.}=\frac{P(x)\cdot Q(x)}{\operatorname{G.C.D.}(P(X),Q(X))\cdot \operatorname{DOM}(Q)\cdot\operatorname{DOM}(P)}$! $\operatorname{DOM}(P)$ is the leading coefficient! If $P(x)=1+x+3x^3$ hence $\operatorname{DOM}\{P\}=3$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Hmm. So if I'm looking for the lcm of f(x) = $x^3-x^2-1$ and g(x) = $x^2-x+1$, I can just take f(x)g(x)/ gcd(f(x),g(x))? $\endgroup$
    – jstnchng
    Feb 14, 2015 at 20:15
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    $\begingroup$ True! Dom(p) and Dom(q) both equal 1 $\endgroup$
    – mandez
    Feb 14, 2015 at 20:20

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